Need help understanding the difference in these terms. My husband, Larry , had a PET/CT scan in November which identified FDG avid spots in his spleen, deemed suspicious for metastatic disease. He had a follow up CT on Monday and the report now reads "unchanged hypoattenuating lesions in the spleen, which remain suspicious for metastatic disease, though treatment related sarcoidosis-like reaction is a consideration as well. Notably, these were FDG avid on PET/CT 11/4/2019." He has a clinic appt tomorrow and expect we'll find out - just want to have some education prior. Thanks.